Here me out on this one.
A mass shooting is 4 or more people.
So Baldwin, 2 who got shot makes 3 people. Was there a 4th there as well? Or was the set totally closed off.
So this would make Baldwin a mass shooter. How come MDA or ET hasn't labeled this incident as such? We all know how they love to combine active and mass shootings alike.
Technically:
The FBI has no official definition for mass shooting. In fact, they are trying to relabel the stats to "mass killing", to better capture that fact that a given number of victims dies, whereas "shooting" would not necessarily achieve the same number of deaths but would still qualify under "mass shooting". The glaring hole in most of this is the term "shooting." That doesn't allow for mass murders by other than firearms. What if a team holds 20 people hostage in a bank, then they kill 2 by knife, 2 by bludgeoning, and 2 by firearm? That's 6 dead in a single event within the same structure. If they were all killed by the same person using firearms, it would be a mass shooting by most current definitions. Mass killing should categorize these types of events, however rare, in a way that takes the focus off the weapon used. (My opinion) The OK City bombing is an example of mass killing where no guns were involved. Should that not be included in the stats for mass shootings?
In 2013, Congress defined mass shootings as a single incident that leaves three or more people dead.
In its research essay "Mass Shootings in the United States," the Rand Corporation said,
"There is no standard definition of what constitutes a mass shooting, and different data
sources—such as media outlets, academic researchers, and law enforcement agencies—
frequently use different definitions when discussing and analyzing mass shootings."
"The U.S. government has never defined mass shooting as a separate category of crime,"
according to Rand, "and there is not yet a broadly accepted definition of the term."
https://www.msn.com/en-us/news/us/definitions-of-mass-shooting-vary/ar-BB1fJ0nQEven though the FBI routinely releases data on mass shootings, any body count used to categorize such events is often judged to be arbitrary -- which it is. Whether 3 or 4 or more constitutes a mass shooting or mass killing, all committed in close proximity to each other and in a single event -- an event that could extend over man y hours -- it's all arbitrarily decided. Those who want to paint the US as a nation having an epidemic of mass shootings will include gang, domestic violence, and any shooting that takes place where more than 3 or 4 "targets" are gathered. The fact that only 1 or 2 were killed or wounded should not recategorize the mass shooting. If a good guy with a gun stops a mass shooting before 3-4 people are killed (other than the mass shooter), are we not able to interpret the intent of the killer was to kill as many as possible?
Most organizations doing the math exclude the mass shooter in the number of deaths. So, 3 dead plus the gunman would not equal the 4 fatalities necessary to qualify as a mass shooting, assuming 4 is the standard being used.
This is one area I think the CDC or other agency could spend some of that research money they are getting. They could map out new categories and redefine existing ones to create a standard for each that's based on common sense, not arbitrary decisions or activists' desires to manipulate the data.
This is probably a bit off-topic, but it follows onto the question about whether Baldwin is a "mass shooter". I think he would have had to demonstrate intent to shoot multiple people before we can go there.