I find it instructional ... that the Constitution has existed since 1776, and that the Second Amendment was ratified in 1791. In order for the amendment to be adopted, there had to be a super-majority of states vote for it.
Did you know, the 2nd A was adopted from English law? They enacted the Bill of Rights of 1698, which among other things includes the prohibition of cruel and unusual punishment and confirmed that "Protestants may have arms for their defence suitable to their conditions and as allowed by law."
Ours is more inclusive, but same "arms for defense" premise.
Prior to this Constitutional Amendment, 7 states already included in their State Constitutions the right to keep and bear arms.
If the 2nd is so antiquated and out-of-date, why has it remained unamended for over 230 years? Are we to assume the same justifications she names today never existed prior to this period of time?
Machine guns were allowed like any other firearm until 1934, when you had to start applying for an NFA tax stamp to buy one. Then, in 1968, the import and manufacture of machine guns for civilians was outlawed. Not once was the Constitution amended to exclude these firearms from "the people". Why not? Why has there been no attempt to rewrite that one amendment so it would be easier to pass national gun control laws without bumping into the Second Amendment.
It's because until now, the courts went along with gun control as a means of protecting public safety. They lose sight of the reason the government should not be dictating to the people what arms we may possess to defend against a tyrannical government.
I would argue with Hirono, "So, if you disagree with the latest court rulings upholding second amendment rights, and you defend your position saying we don't know what the founders intended, what makes you SO SURE gun control laws are constitutional? Without knowing the amendment's intent, you can't argue either side of gun control -- pro or con."
But, that would be the same as trying to teach a pig how to sing....